150 most commonly asked MCQs in Pediatrics

Set of 150 Multiple choice questions in pediatrics for DNB theory exams preparation.

These MCQs are based on a recall mostly, from DNB Exam held in December 2015 . At few places only the topic on which the MCQ was based are given as the whole question and options could not be recalled. There may be some errors at few places. Feel free to correct or add more MCQs and answers using your comments.

1. 3 electrolye abnormalities in Hungry bone disease?
hypocalcaemia, hypophosphataemia and hypomagnesaemia #
2. Ichthyosis Vulgaris is caused by defect in whch gene?
filaggrin gene (FLG) #
3. Lung head ratio in CDH is used for?
Prognostication. Ratio more than 1 has favourable outcomes. #
4. PROBIT study used for?
To analyze the socioeconomic factors affecting milk consumption of households #
5. AWHONN scoring system is used for?
Neonatal skin care in NICU #
6. ESPHGANN recommendation for protein requirement in preterm newborn is?
1.3-1.5 g protein/kg/d #
7. How much is the FRC of a normal new born is?
30 mL/kg #
8. Most common organism associated in acute chest syndrome
Chlamydia pneumophila. More on acute chest syndrome #
9. Which disease is associated with acute chest syndrome
Sickle cell disease #
10. What is the role of Yashoda as a health care worker>
To support the mother and the newborn child and assist the nurse in various non-clinical activities #
11. Asha income in various transport
12. Janani surasksha yojna
13. Gadchiroli project use for
14. What is the difference between in FISH and array CGH
FISH is a molecular technique that detects specific DNA sequence on a chromosome using fluorescently labeled probes. CGH is a molecular technique that detects alterations in the genomic DNA. #
15. Reptilase time is used for?
Reptilase time (RT) is a used to detect deficiency or abnormalities in fibrinogen in cases of heparin contamination. #
16. Antiphospholipid syndrome is diagnosed by?
Detection of Lupus anticoagulant #
17. Dendritic ulcer in eye cause by?
Herpese simplex virus #
18. Which electrolytes disturbance is seen in Refeeding syndrome?
Hypophosphataemia #
19. Which ticks transmits Babesiosis?
Ixodes scapularis ticks (backlegged ticks) #
20. Rat bite fever is caused by?
Spirillum minus bacteria (asia) and Streptobacillus moniliformis (North America))#
21. What is the gold standard for diagnosis of Leptospira diagnosis?
leptospiral antibodies detected with the microscopic agglutination test (MAT) is the gold standard #
22. What is the characteristic feature of Congenital varicella
Characteristic scarring skin lesions known as cicatrix occur in a dermatomal distribution throughout the body #
23. Which part of renal tubule is affected in Gitleman syndrome?
Distal convoluted tubule #
24. What is the name of GH receptor antagonist?
Pegvisomant #
25. How is TAMM measured in sicke cell disease
with transcranila ultrasound #
26. Thersold of TAMM (time-averaged mean velocities of maximum blood flow) in Sickle cell disease to undergo blood trnasfusion to prevent stroke
>200 cm/s #
27. Bite cell seen in
Bite cells are seen in enzyme defects such as G6PD deficiency, NADPH deficiency, thalassemia, glutathione synthase deficiency, oxidative drugs and unstable hemoglobins. image #
28. In which condition Keyhole sign is seen on antenatal usg?
The keyhole sign is seen in boys with posterior urethral valves on antenatal USG. Dilated proximal urethra and thick walled distended bladder on ultrasound looks like a keyhole. #
29. Idiopathic MR is diagnosed by?
Newer chromosome microarray or comparative genomic hybridization technique (array-CGH) #
30. What is Weaver syndrome?
Weaver syndrome is characterised by tall stature with or without macrocephaly, mild intellectual disability (usually), and characteristic facial features such as Long philtrum, Retrognathia, Round face in infancy and Prominent chin crease. #
31. Measles inclusion bodies are found in?
Measles inclusion bodies are found in Brain tissue of patient with measles encephalitis. #
32. Vincent curtsy posture is used for?
Postural control of urinary incontinence #
33. What is Hinman syndrome?
Hinman syndrome is neuropsychological condition, characterized by functional bladder outlet obstruction in the absence of neurologic deficits #
34. What is Giggle insentience?
Giggle insentience is a condition in which involuntary complete bladder emptying is triggered by laughing or giggling. #
35. What is the enzyme defect in Crigler-Najjar Syndrome?
Deficiency of the enzyme glucuronyl transferase (UGT1A1). #
36. With hormone is most important in puberty
GnRH #
37. Which hormone is responsible for thelarche
Thelarche is caused by the action of estrogen on breast tissue.#
38. Which is the first sign of puberty in male?
Enlargement of testes. #
39. Which is the most common primary phagocytic defect?
Myeloperoxidase (MPO) deficiency is the most common primary phagocytic defect
40. Name the drug used in treatment of primart hyperoxaluria type-1
Oxlumo (lumasiran) is used for the treatment of primary hyperoxaluria type 1 #
41. Which hormone is considered responsible for PCOS in young children.
Hyperandrogenism #
42. What are the features of Stein-Leventhal syndrome?
Menstrual irregularity, hirsutism, obesity, and polycystic ovaries. #
43. Most common cause of NMR according to the lancet survey?
Prematurity is the leading cause responsible for NMR. #
44. Most common cause of mortality in shigella types in a developed country
Shigella Sonnei s the most common species. #
45. Bioterrorism in anthrax which route used?
Cuteneous. Approximately 20% mortality rate via dermal route, 25 to 60% via oral route, 100 percent via inhalation route. #
46. Levetiracetam dose in status epilepticus
Maximum dose that can be used in status is 60mg/kg dose with max single dose of 4.5 grams. #
47. Intra vitriol RX in ROP drug
Bevacizumab, a monoclonal antibody is used intravitriol for the treatment of ROP. More on newer drugs in ROP #
48. Most common precipitating cause of Hepatic encephalopathy is ?
Most common precipitating cause of Hepatic encephalopathy is GI blleding followed by Infection. #
49. Mixing study in coagulation is used for?
Mixing study is used to differentiate whether an abnormal coagulation test is due to deficiency of a coagulation factor or an inhibitory antibody #
50. What is the difference between fibrin and fibrinogen?
Ffibrin is a thread of proteins which forms the mesh like structure during the formation of blood clot. Fibrinogen is a plasma protein that takes part in the formation of fibrin mesh. #
51. 7-year-old with Bp 160/110 with no papilledema with convulsion, What should be the next step in management?
This is hypertensive encephalopathy, Treatment is labetelol or sodium nitroprusside infusion. #
52. What constitutes Papa syndrome?
PAPA syndrome also called as PAPGA syndrome constitutes Pyogenic Arthritis, Pyoderma Gangrenosum and Acne. It is a rare genetic autoinflammatory disorder. Know more about auto-inflammatory syndorme. (link)
53. Granulomas in upper and lower lobe of lungs with centrilobular distribution. What could be the diagnosis?
hypersensitivity pneumonitis. The granulomas of TB are necrotising, randomly located or bronchiolocentric and may also involve blood vessels. Noncaseating or nonnecrotising granulomas are the hallmark of sarcoidosis. #
54. Reflux disease BAL contain
Lipid laden macrophage. #
55. Most effective Rx in GERD
56. Most common route used Botulism bioterrorism is?
Via skin #
57. Duffy antigen protect from
58. Lyme disease with facial palsy with cardiac involvement stage?
59. Balanced polymorphism defines
60. Cataract feature with RTA diagnosis
61. XR disease
62. Of human gene in genome
63. Humidity requirement in new born
64. Organism cause paralysis of cilia in lung
65. Best way to transfusion in SCD
66. GVHD can be reduced in blood transfusion
67. Hydrocarbon poisoning with x ray changes occurs at what time
68. PNH diagnosis
69. Involve in complement C7 deficiency
70. Face sparing rash present in disease
71. Hand foot mouth disease caused by most common org
72. DD of Kawasaki disease all except
73. Retinoblastoma average age of diagnosis in U/L and B/L cases
74. Screening of CAH after birth when to do
75. Vitamin E deficiency cause all except
76. Cat menial pneumothorax and RX
77. Mc uterine anomaly in girl
78. Mc cystic fibrosis mutation seen
79. Dense deposit disease associated with
80. Nail hypoplasia is caused by
81. DOC in Liddle syndrome
82. NKCC transporter disease
83. Type 4 barter disease associated with
84. Piecemeal necrosis in liver due to
85. Sucking and swallowing reflex nerve involved
86. In HBV with anti-Hbs and anti-Hbc positive means
87. Wiskot Aldrich syndrome inheritance is
88. Homocystinuria dislocation of the lens is
89. MDG goal of 2015 for IMR
90. Hypovolemic hypernatremia cause
91. Central pontine myelinosis cause by
92. DI serum osmolality and plasma osmolality
93. Respiratory alkalosis compensation by PCO2 and HCO3
94. Pertene cause by in non-venereal leprosy
95. Best somatic sensory test for cognitive development
96. Chonal atresia is diagnosis by
97. Most common nasal abnormality in newborn
98. Ossification center earliest and in DDH hip joint
99. PTH regulates Po4 by which effect
100. Normal BP metabolic alkalosis cause
101. The most common menstrual problem in girl
102. 2yr old child with haematuria and abdominal Lump cause by
103. Type of epidermolysis bullosa with poor prognosis or scarring
104. New born close eyelid on bright light age
105. Hypo plastic right heart disease is also known as
106. The target for under 5 mortality
107. 3 time of time constant is equal to
108. Increase in resistance with normal compliance Tc will be
109. Transmission risk of NTD if one time parents affect
110. Velanemetous cord insertion associated with
111. Speech delay in 18-month-old child red flag is
112. A condition which splenectomy is beneficial for
113. DOC for uncomplicated strongilydosis
114. Dientemoba fragilis occur along with which infection
115. Calcium transferred in placenta diffusion type
116. Amino acid transferred in placenta diffusion type
117. Mc renal anomaly with turner syndrome
118. O2 consumption normal in new born what
119. 9-month old infant with development assessment include with order
120. Pineolctomy requirement in
121. 1mmhg increase in o2 increase how much o2 in blood
122. CPAP is best given by which method
123. Maternal disomic example
124. Stigmata of VZV include all except
125. Respiratory burst suppression for
126. Sinusitis with granuloma with nephritis what is the cause ?
127. Rifamycin develop from
128. Which hormone is normally increased in the neonate
129. BSSL enzyme useful for the preterm present in all milk or only human milk and
130. More in preterm milk than term and also less
131. What is GFR of a one-month-old infant
132. Complete heart block common in which congenital heart disease
133. Rsr pattern with right ventricular hypertrophy with Acynotic heart disease
134. Pda develops from which arch?/li>The distal left sixth embryonic arch persists and becomes the PDA, connecting the left PA to the proximal descending aorta. #
135. What is Thoracic inlet?
The thoracic inlet, also known as the superior thoracic aperture, refers to the opening at the top of the thoracic cavity. It is a space between the thorax and axilla through which the subclavian vein, subclavian artery, and brachial plexus pass. #
136. What is th oular side effect of Latanoprost?
Chnage in eye color, which can be permanent. #
137. Optic lens develop from
Lens and corneal epithelium are derived from lens placode that arises from surface ectoderm. Retina, iris and optic nerves are derived from optic vesicle that arises from neuroectoderm of diencephalon. #
138. The fascia of tonsil develop from
Tonsillar fascia or pharyngeal aponeurosis originates from the pharyngeal tubercle.
139. Amount of snake venom of Kobra neutralized with 1vial of ASV is?
The amount of venom neutralized with 1 ml of anti-snake venom in cobra is 0.6 mg, Russell's viper 0.6 mg and krait is 0.45 mg. #
140. Drug of choice for Scorpion sting

Prazocin. It is a selective alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blocker that cause arterial and venous dilation thus reducing pre-load and afterload to left ventrical without rise in heart rate. #