200 commonly asked MCQ in Pediatrics - Part 1

MCQ in pediatrics

Part 1 of the Set of 200 Multiple choice questions in pediatrics for DNB and MRCPCH exams that are commonly asked.

These MCQs are based on a recall mostly, from DNB Exam held in June 2017 and there are chances of few errors in the text. Feel free to correct or add more using your comments.

1. Congenital hyperbilirubinemia - Galactosemia

2. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia seen in

a) Dubin johnson syndrome
b) Criggler Nager syndrome 
c) G6pd def

3. Miller Fisher variant of GBS antibody -

a) GQ1a,
b) GT1a ,
c) GM1b,

4. Content of iodine in salt as per national Iodine def program

iodine 15 ppm

5. Albendazole all are true except -

a) decreased absorption when taken with a fatty meal,
b) causes cytopenia
c) excreted by the kidney

6. Multiple gene duplication and deletion is diagnosed by

a) CGH
c) PCR

7. Anganwadi worker advised to deliver calorie for SAM child

a) 800cal ,protein 20 gm
b) 600 kcal. P 20gm
c) 400kcal, 20gm

8. Velocardiofacial syndrome associated with

a) translocation
b )microdeletion 22q

9. Breatux index Is

- container with larvae /100 house

10. Iron and folic acid supplemented for 6 yr old as per IPI

a) 30gm iron, 200 folic acid
b) 45gm iron 300 FA,
C) 45gm iron, 350 FA,
d) 45gm iron , 250 FA

11. Drug-induced SLE antibody responsible is

- Antihistone Ab

12. Drugs causing SLE all except


a) Etanercept,
b) Minocycline
c) Hydralazine
d) Phenobarbitone

13. Drugs causing SLE all except - Phenytoin, minocycline, hydralazine, valproic acid

14. Drug responsible for an increase in platelet count - Eltromboplog

15. Leimierres disease true is

- caused by F. necrophorum

16. Cause of figure of 8 in the flow volume curve -

a) obstructive disease
b) restrictive disease
c) air Starvation

17. Trummerfield zone is seen in def of

a) Vit A
b) Vit C
c) Vit D
d) Vit E

18. Calculate PPV with the following details 90% sensitivity 90% specificity and 10 % prevalence of d disease

a) 40%
d ) 90%

19. SLE which of d following is true

a) decreased T cytotoxic cell activity and decreased B cell activity.
b) decreased B cell & increased T cytotoxic cell activity
c) increased B and T cell activity

20. Lead chelation is indicated with a lead level

> 45 meq/dl

21. As per WHo which of the following is probably essential

a) mangnese,
b ) molybednum
c) cadmium
d) arsenic

22. CD4:CD8>4 elevated D dimer in BAL is diagnostic for

- Sarcoidosis

23. Monophonic wheeze is seen in

a) Bronchial tumour
b) Br asthma
c) Bronchiolitis
d) Bronchomalacia

24. All of d following is seen in fetal alcohol syndrome except

a) small philtrum,
b) defective upper lip ,
c) limb aplasia,
d) def 3- 4th metacarpal

25. Resomal Na content

- 45 Meq

26. Alagille syndrome involves

a) Pulm stenosis
b) VSD
c) PDA,

27. Boiled cabbage urinary odor is seen in

b) Isovaleric Aciduria
c) PKU
d) MCD

28. Which of the following is mitochondriopathy

a) Zellweger syndrome 
b) Reye syndrome
c) spingolipidosis

29. Fabry disease def in

a) glucosidase A
b) aryl sulfatase
c) spingolipidosis

30. Metachromatic Leucodistrophy def in

Ans - Aryl sulfatase A

31. Genetic materials for study were with cells arrest in

a) metaphase
b) telophase
c) Anaphase
d) premetaphase

32. JIA defined as arthritis of

a) > 6 weeks ,
b) > 12 weeks,
c) 10wk,
d ) > 8wk

33. JIA with ana positivity increases the complication risk for

a) Hemolytic anemia
b) Ant uveitis
c) pancreatitis
d) Ankylosing spondylitis

34. JIA along with RF positivity which one is considered to manifest as Aggressive Disease

Ans - CCP positive

35. mother with 7-day old neonate had varicella next line of Mx is

a) continue routine mother and baby care
b) isolation of mother from the baby
c) Give Acyclovir to the baby
d) give Varicella Immunoglobulin to d baby

36. Most common cause of congenital Sensory neural hearing loss is

a) congenital syphilis
b) CMV
c) Herpes
d) HIV

37. Recurrent Staph infection is seen in

Chediak Higashi syndrome

38. Chronic granulomatous infection def is in

a) Degranulation of Neutrophil
b) Generation of Oxygen dependant compound
c) Phagocytosis

39. For Complete heart block in a fetus Promising line of treatment is with use of

a) HydroxyChloroquine,
b) quinine
c) hydrocortisone d)digoxin

40. GERD peak age of onset is


41. BFHI consists of

a) 8steps
b) 9 steps
c) 10 steps
d) 7steps

42. Causative agent of purulent conjunctivitis and pneumonia in child 2 yr

a) legionella
b) chlamydia
c) Mycoplasma
d ) staph

43. Whipple disease DOC is

a) co-trimoxazole
b) Metronidazole
d) Pn

44. Diabetic with necrotizing Pneumonia and skin infection with blood culture growing Burkholderia true is

a) Cepoperazone + sulbactam is the drug of choice
b) piperacilin and tazobactum is DOC
c) observation
d) ceftriaxone is DOC

45. Erythromycin causing CHPS true is

Ans - stimulation of motilin receptor

46. Breath hydrogen test is used for

Ans -Carbohydrate malabsorption

47. Alpha 1 elastase level in stools is done for

a) Exocrine Pancreas,
b) Endocrine Pancreas
c) gall bladder
d) liver functional test

48. Vit A dose in less than 6 months baby - 50,000 Iu

49. Which of the following is does not require admission

a) 8% burns without inhalational injury
b) 5% burns with suspected Inhalational injury
c) Deep dermal injury
d) Burns with suspected Child abuse

50. What is the expected level of drop-in serum Pottasium level to change the PH by o.1


51. Morgagnian hernia location is

a) Retrosternal,
b) paraoesophageal
c) paraseptal
d) peripheral diaphragm 

52. Homocysteine Treatment is

a) Vit B6
b) Vit B 12
c) Folic acid
d) Thiamine

53. Norwegian Scabies is seen in

a) Immunocompromised person
b) Diabetic

54. True about Spo2 principal, It measures

a) functional oxygen concentration
b) fractional oxygen
c) Refractional o2
d) Methhemoglobin o2

55. Drug used in Atrial flutter for vent rate control

a) Amiodarone
b) Verapamil
c) Propranolol

56. protein advised in preterm

a)3.5 gm/kg
d) 2gm/kg

57. Protein content in colostrum is


58. Blood volume in Preterm baby

- Ans 90-110ml/kg

59. Clinical case of Encephalitis + skin rash + diarrhea and dehydration

- Ans - Multiple carboxylase deficiency

60. Child with bronchospasm, hyper-eosinophilia in blood

Ans: chaurg strauss syndrome

61. ANCA positivity in Ulcerative colitis

c) 70%
d) 50%

62. In Apneoa of Prematurity caffeine is chosen over Methylxanthine because

a) Cause less tachycardia
b) More effective
c) Cost-effective
d) Does not cause Feed intolerance and vomiting

63. Newborn stabilization Units is located in

a) PHC
d) district place
d) Medical colleges

64. Cogan syndrome true is

a) IK+ HL+ cataract
b) IK+HL+glaucoma

65. Rickettsial disease CSF finding is

a) increased Protein and no cells and normal Glucose
b) increased protein and Normal glucose and pleocytosis
c) decreased protein and glucose, no cells
d) increased protein decreased glucose and Pleocytosis

66. Miltefosine true is

a) derivative of Antifosine
b) cure rate of 10-20% in Visceral leishmaniasis
c) relapse rate of 80-90% in VL
d) dose of 50-100mg/day orally

67. Micropenis is defined as the stretched penile length

a) <1.9cm
b) < 2.4cm
c) < 2.8cm
d) < 3.2 cm

68. Ureteric Caliculi investigation of choice is

a) USG
b) Xray c
c) CT scan
d) urine analysis

69. Seesaw nystagmus is seen in

a) Pandred syndrome
b) cerebellar disease
d) Optic chiasm defect

70. In a study of smoking as a risk factor of RCC, 30 out of 50 pt were smokers and in controls 10 out of 50 had renal cancer calculate the odd ratio

c) 6
d) 4

71. Calculate sensitivity from d given table below (2*2 ready table given )

Ans 33.33%

72. Menkes disease involves

a) Copper
b) Zinc
c) Iron
d) calcium

73. Site of Incision in ASOM for myringotomy is

a) posterior inferior
b) Anterior inferior
c) Posterior Superior
d) Anterior superior

74. Anakinra is used in

a) Systemic onset JIA
b) oligoarticular
c) Pauci articular
d) psoriatic arthritis

75. Homocystinuria lens dislocated to

a) Inferio - nasally
b) superio - medially
c) nasally
d) inferiorly

76. Staggart syndrome true is

Ans: Macular dystrophy, juvenile progressive macular degeneration

77. OPV dose is

a) 0.05ml
b) 0.1 ml
d) 0.5ml

78. Fanconi Anemia hereditary inheritance pattern is

a) AR
b) AD
c) X-linked
d) Mitochondrial

79. Tetanus immunoglobulin is not required if antibody titer is >

a) 0.01iu/ml
b) 0.1IU/ml
c) 1iu/ml
d) 0.001IU/ml
80. Risk of hypoglycemia in IDM baby

a) 10-15%
b) 30-40%
c) 50%
d) 60%

81. Child with supra valvular AS heart lesion, dysmorphism with thick upper lip protruded maxilla most likely to have

a) Williams syndrome
b) Turner syndrome
c) Allagille .]]

82. Bruton aggamaglobulinemia true is

83. Treatment of chronic SIADH

Ans: Tolvaptan

84. Vit. D intoxication in mother --> effect on a baby

Ans: Supravalvur Aortic Stenosis

85. Repetitive pregnancy failure in Diabetic mothers belong to what classification in Whites classification

a) group "G"
b) F
C) D
d) H

86. In a child suspected to have spinal injury all o the following are true except

a) Lesion involving c2-c5 usually causes neurological deficit
b) Only MRI changes are seen in _______

87. Most common cause of neonatal hypoglycemia -

a) Ketotic Hypoglycemia
b) hyperinsulinemic hypoglycemia
c) IDM

88. Cleft lip/palate after 2 children affected risk in the next pregnancy

a) 1%
d) 20%

89. True about Asperger syndrome

a) most commonly affects male
b) associated with delayed cognition
c) progressive deterioration of language

90. Penicillin allergic patient with RF - which drug has to be given in sore throat

a) cefixime
b) ceftriaxone
c) cefuroxime
d) Levofloxacin

91. RHD with AR most likely to have which of d following grave complication -

a) IE
b) Embolism
c) CCF
d) coronary insufficiency

92. Nail patella syndrome gene involved

a) Lmx1b
b) WT1
c) ATP
d) Col A45

93. Bronchiolitis Prophylaxis which drug is given 

a) Ribavirin
c) Lamivudine
d) Immunoglobulin.

94. SARNAT N SARNAT stage -1??

a) Lethargy
b) Hypotonia
c) mydriasis
d) Sympathetic overactivity

95. Child with left side inguinal hernia presents with features of large intestinal obstruction, which is most likely to involve

a) Descending colon
b) Sigmoid colon
c) rectum
d) Caecum

96. Epispadia/hypospadias repair timing

a)< 6month
b) 12-18 month
c) 2-3 yrs d) 4-5 yr

97. Saturation of Umbilical artery is

b) 20-30%
c) 50-60% d
d) 30-40%

98. Most common extraintestinal manifestation of Celiac Disease

Ans: Iron def Anemia

99. Sickle cell disease with priapism. What is the choice of management?

a) hydroxyurea
b) PCV transfusion
c) erythropoietin

100. SCD- 1st pain manifestation?

a) dactylitis
b) Priapism
c) chest syndrome
d) pain abdomen