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Home • MCQ • 100 Pediatric Multiple choice questions.

100 Pediatric Multiple choice questions.

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Paediatric MCQ for DNB and MRCPCH exam

Multiple choice questions in pediatrics asked commonly in the exam.

Answer for most of the questions is given. These MCQs are from DNB Pediatrics exam held in June 2017.


There were around 60 repeats MCQ's in June 2017 exam. Therefore going through the previous year question is very important. MCQ’s alone can make or break the result. 


Multiple choices as I recalled are given and Probable answers are marked with an asterisk. Feel free to correct or add more using your comments.


  1. Atomoxetine is used primarily in which disorder? ADHD*, Nocturnal Enuresis, none
  2. Seen in hypothyroidism all except – Spatulated ribs*, scoliosis, craniotabes
  3. Shape of upper airways in neonate – funnel shaped with subglottis being the narrowest part*
  4. Congenital lupus – heart block detected at which gestational age? Earliest at 16 weeks*
  5. What shows X-linked inheritance? Hunter/MPS 1*
  6. Inheritance pattern of Fanconi? AR*, XLR, AD, XLD
  7. MC presentation of malrotation of gut?
  8. Which disorder presents as macrocytic anemia with sideroblasts? Pearson Syndrome*/Shwachman Syndrome/Diamond Blackfan
  9. MC Abdominal mass in neonate? PCKD*/Wilms
  10. Pupillary reflex present by? 31 weeks*,
  11. F-100 contains – Protein 2.9 g and Lactose 4.2g*, Protein 0.9 g and Lactose 1.3 g
  12. Infection in neonate presenting like RDS? Group B Strept*, Klebsiella
  13. Enzyme deficiency in Metachromatic Leukodystrophy? Arylsufatase*, Sphingomyelinase, Ceramidase
  14. Dialysis useful in excretion of which of the following posonings? – in Salycylate poisoning*, Digitalis, Lithium
  15. Left Axis Deviation with oligemia is a feature of which Valvular heart disease?–Tricuspid atresia*, PA, MS, MR
  16. In Wilson’s disease, KF ring is seen in – descemet’s membrane*
  17. Composition of Ringer’s Lactate solution? – Na 130, Cl 109, K 4, Ca 3, Lactate 28 *
  18. Persistent bradycardia in fetus is defined as? - < 110/min (for 10 min)*, <90, <100, <60
  19. Staph aureus infection common in which inherited disorder of immunodeficiency? – Chediak Higashi*, X Linked Agammaglobulinemia, MPO Deficiency
  20. How does granulocyte defect work? Defective degranulation*
  21. Respiratory Alkalosis is seen with which of the following? Theophylline*, digitalis
  22. Principles of counselling needs to be done in which order? – Ask, listen, advice and check*, other options included changes in sequence of the above actions
  23. Diagnostic criteria for Esophageal eosinophilia with regards to biopsy? 15-20 eosinophils per HPF *, 50-100/hpf, 500/hpf
  24. Number of calories provided under the ICDS program in India?300, 500, 800
  25. Antibodies found in Miller Fisher variant of Guillian-Barrẻ Syndrome? Anti - GQ1B AB*
  26. Iodine concentration in iodised salt at consumer leve – 15ppm*, 30ppm, 100ppm
  27. Vit D in pregnancy causes?
  28. Multigene duplication and deletion diagnosed by? Microarray*, FISH
  29. SAM anganwadi nutrition therapy?
  30. Velocardiofacial microdeletion? 22q11.2 TBX 1 Gene*
  31. Breteaux index - number of positive containers, infected with larva or pupa, per 100 houses inspected
  32. IFA supplement for a 6 year old child – 20mg plus 100microgram*
  33. What is Lemiere Syndrome - internal jugular vein septic thrombophlebitis caused by Fusobacterium Necrophorum*
  34. Drug induced lupus is positive for which antibodies? Anti Histone*
  35. Pulmonary graphics showing Fig of Eight pattern denotes what? Air Hunger*
  36. What is significance of Trummerfeld zone on XRAY? – zone of rarefaction in Scurvy*
  37. In SLE, immunological response regarding T cell andB cell activity? Hypofunction of both B and T Cell*
  38. Chelation therapy at what levels of lead in blood?- >45ug/dL*
  39. CD4/CD8 Ratio, DDimer in BAL is diagnostic of? Sarcoidosis*
  40. Monophonic wheeze is a feature of?–tracheo-bronchomalacia*
  41. Features of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome. Smooth philtrum*, Thin vermilion*
  42. ? Probably essential element – cannot recall the exact question
  43. Cabbage odor in urine? Tyrosinemia*, Phenylketonuria, MSUD
  44. Which type of JIA are ANA positive? 50% of Oligo and Polyartritis*, SOJIA
  45. 7 day old develops … some clinical case scenario given
  46. Pathogenesis of erythromycin in HPS – gastrokinetic effects and effects on MMC(Migrating Motor Complexes)*
  47. Difference b/w Cystic Fibrosis and Kartagener? Bronchiectasis in lower lobes in in Kartagener, in Upper Lobes in CF*
  48. Miltefosine is indicated for? Leishmaniasis*
  49. Feature of Homocystinuria? Dislocation of lens*
  50. Signs of vasculitis with prominent respiratory symptoms like asthma.Churg Strauss Syndrome*
  51. HIE grade 1 is associated with what level of consciousness? Hyper alert and irritable*, Lethargic or obtunded, Stuporous or comatose
  52. Hypercalcemia complicates? Subcutaneous Fat necrosis*
  53. Necrotic mass in ear – pseudomonas Aeruginosa*
  54. Rome III Criteria for constipation in age 4 – 18 years? <2 defecations per week with history of paiful or hard bowel movements*
  55. RSV prophylaxis? Palivizumab in infants*
  56. Clotting factor transfusion most beneficial in? Hemophilia A*
  57. Transpleural / transpulmonary pressure?
  58. Myringotomy incision preferred quadrant? Anteroinferior*
  59. Score of NBS when labia equally prominent? 2*
  60. GDM mother with recurrent reproductive failure
  61. Vit B6 given in? classic homocystinuria*
  62. Direct Hyperbilirubinemia –Galactosemia*, CN, Gilbert, Lucey-Driscoll
  63. Child with fever, cough, conjunctivitis
  64. Cherry Red Spots – Sandhoff’s*
  65. Profound hearing loss defined as? >70dB*
  66. Sensitivity 90%, Specificity 90%, Prevalance 10%, Calculate PPV? 50%*
  67. Calculate Odd’s Ratio – straight forward question was asked.
  68. Comparison of means from 2 different groups? – (unpaired T Test; same group – paired T Test)*
  69. Question on lung volumes-
  70. Drug not used in otitis media –Cefixime*
  71. Biotin needed in which inborn error of metabolic disorder?Holocarboxylasesynthetasedeficiency*, glutaric aciduria
  72. ECG Changes in GSD Type 2 – short PR Interval*
  73. Fabry’s disease enzyme deficiency? Alpha-Galactosidase*, Glucosidase, Aryl Sulfatase
  74. Qn on spinal injury and SCIWORA
  75. Which is mitochondrial disease? Rye Syndrome*
  76. PSVT drug treatment? Adenosine*
  77. How many steps in BFHI? 10*
  78. Polio how many ml of drops? 0.1 ml*
  79. Complain of arthritis for how many weeks for diagnosis of JIA? 6 months*
  80. CSF in Rickettsial Diseases normally shows?Pleocytosis with mild proteins elevation and normal glucose*
  81. Digeorge Syndrome is mal development from which pharyngeal tissue? – 3rd and 4th Pharyngeal pouch*, arches, clefts
  82. Sup Mesenteric Artery gets compressed with part of duodenum? 1st, 2nd, 3rd* or 4th
  83. Clinical Qn–HR 220 – altered sensorium –checked A/B/C… what next? Check BP
  84. Drug induced Lupus – 2 Qn
  85. Edward Syndrome
  86. Most Common Cause of Congenital Cataract – Congenital Rubella*
  87. Cogan’s Syndrome – Triad of Interstitial Keratitis, hearing loss, vestibular symptoms *
  88. Diagnosis when SPO2 high, pO2 normal or low? – Methemoglobinemia*
  89. H2 breath test used for?– Carbohydrate malabsorption*
  90. Coarse facies – MPS*
  91. Pneumatosis Intestinalis at which Stage of NEC? Stage II *
  92. Hypospadia/epispadias in a healthy child – t/t at what age?
  93. Morgagnian Hernia – Retrosternal*, paraesophageal
  94. Qn on canavan’s disease
  95. Hyper acusis in TaySach’s disease
  96. Question on refsum’s disease
  97. Weaver syndrome
  98. Gene responsible for cancer life prolongation – Telomerase*
  99. NBSU