MCQ DNB PEDIATRICS THEORY JUNE 2017

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There were lots of repeat MCQ's in DNB Pediatrics June Exam 2017, about 60, Each MCQ in theory examination is important; MCQ’s alone can make or break one’s result. Probable answers marked with asterisk, should be checked again.
  1. Atomoxetine is used primarily in which disorder? ADHD*, Nocturnal Enuresis, none
  2. Seen in hypothyroidism all except – Spatulated ribs*, scoliosis, craniotabes
  3. Shape of upper airways in neonate – funnel shaped with subglottis being the narrowest part*
  4. Congenital lupus – heart block detected at which gestational age? Earliest at 16 weeks*
  5. What shows X-linked inheritance? Hunter/MPS 1*
  6. Inheritance pattern of Fanconi? AR*, XLR, AD, XLD
  7. MC presentation of malrotation of gut?
  8. Which disorder presents as macrocytic anemia with sideroblasts? Pearson Syndrome*/Shwachman Syndrome/Diamond Blackfan
  9. MC Abdominal mass in neonate? PCKD*/Wilms
  10. Pupillary reflex present by? 31 weeks*,
  11. F-100 contains – Protein 2.9 g and Lactose 4.2g*, Protein 0.9 g and Lactose 1.3 g
  12. Infection in neonate presenting like RDS? Group B Strept*, Klebsiella
  13. Enzyme deficiency in Metachromatic Leukodystrophy? Arylsufatase*, Sphingomyelinase, Ceramidase
  14. Dialysis useful in excretion of which of the following posonings? – in Salycylate poisoning*, Digitalis, Lithium
  15. Left Axis Deviation with oligemia is a feature of which Valvular heart disease?–Tricuspid atresia*, PA, MS, MR
  16. In Wilson’s disease, KF ring is seen in – descemet’s membrane*
  17. Composition of Ringer’s Lactate solution? – Na 130, Cl 109, K 4, Ca 3, Lactate 28 *
  18. Persistent bradycardia in fetus is defined as? - < 110/min (for 10 min)*, <90, <100, <60
  19. Staph aureus infection common in which inherited disorder of immunodeficiency? – Chediak Higashi*, X Linked Agammaglobulinemia, MPO Deficiency
  20. How does granulocyte defect work? Defective degranulation*
  21. Respiratory Alkalosis is seen with which of the following? Theophylline*, digitalis
  22. Principles of counselling needs to be done in which order? – Ask, listen, advice and check*, other options included changes in sequence of the above actions
  23. Diagnostic criteria for Esophageal eosinophilia with regards to biopsy? 15-20 eosinophils per HPF *, 50-100/hpf, 500/hpf
  24. Number of calories provided under the ICDS program in India?300, 500, 800
  25. Antibodies found in Miller Fisher variant of Guillian-Barrẻ Syndrome? Anti - GQ1B AB*
  26. Iodine concentration in iodised salt at consumer leve – 15ppm*, 30ppm, 100ppm
  27. Vit D in pregnancy causes?
  28. Multigene duplication and deletion diagnosed by? Microarray*, FISH
  29. SAM anganwadi nutrition therapy?
  30. Velocardiofacial microdeletion? 22q11.2 TBX 1 Gene*
  31. Breteaux index - number of positive containers, infected with larva or pupa, per 100 houses inspected
  32. IFA supplement for a 6 year old child – 20mg plus 100microgram*
  33. What is Lemiere Syndrome - internal jugular vein septic thrombophlebitis caused by Fusobacterium Necrophorum*
  34. Drug induced lupus is positive for which antibodies? Anti Histone*
  35. Pulmonary graphics showing Fig of Eight pattern denotes what? Air Hunger*
  36. What is significance of Trummerfeld zone on XRAY? – zone of rarefaction in Scurvy*
  37. In SLE, immunological response regarding T cell andB cell activity? Hypofunction of both B and T Cell*
  38. Chelation therapy at what levels of lead in blood?- >45ug/dL*
  39. CD4/CD8 Ratio, DDimer in BAL is diagnostic of? Sarcoidosis*
  40. Monophonic wheeze is a feature of?–tracheo-bronchomalacia*
  41. Features of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome. Smooth philtrum*, Thin vermilion*
  42. ? Probably essential element – cannot recall the exact question
  43. Cabbage odor in urine? Tyrosinemia*, Phenylketonuria, MSUD
  44. Which type of JIA are ANA positive? 50% of Oligo and Polyartritis*, SOJIA
  45. 7 day old develops … some clinical case scenario given
  46. Pathogenesis of erythromycin in HPS – gastrokinetic effects and effects on MMC(Migrating Motor Complexes)*
  47. Difference b/w Cystic Fibrosis and Kartagener? Bronchiectasis in lower lobes in in Kartagener, in Upper Lobes in CF*
  48. Miltefosine is indicated for? Leishmaniasis*
  49. Feature of Homocystinuria? Dislocation of lens*
  50. Signs of vasculitis with prominent respiratory symptoms like asthma.Churg Strauss Syndrome*
  51. HIE grade 1 is associated with what level of consciousness? Hyper alert and irritable*, Lethargic or obtunded, Stuporous or comatose
  52. Hypercalcemia complicates? Subcutaneous Fat necrosis*
  53. Necrotic mass in ear – pseudomonas Aeruginosa*
  54. Rome III Criteria for constipation in age 4 – 18 years? <2 defecations per week with history of paiful or hard bowel movements*
  55. RSV prophylaxis? Palivizumab in infants*
  56. Clotting factor transfusion most beneficial in? Hemophilia A*
  57. Transpleural / transpulmonary pressure?
  58. Myringotomy incision preferred quadrant? Anteroinferior*
  59. Score of NBS when labia equally prominent? 2*
  60. GDM mother with recurrent reproductive failure
  61. Vit B6 given in? classic homocystinuria*
  62. Direct Hyperbilirubinemia –Galactosemia*, CN, Gilbert, Lucey-Driscoll
  63. Child with fever, cough, conjunctivitis
  64. Cherry Red Spots – Sandhoff’s*
  65. Profound hearing loss defined as? >70dB*
  66. Sensitivity 90%, Specificity 90%, Prevalance 10%, Calculate PPV? 50%*
  67. Calculate Odd’s Ratio – straight forward question was asked.
  68. Comparison of means from 2 different groups? – (unpaired T Test; same group – paired T Test)*
  69. Question on lung volumes-
  70. Drug not used in otitis media –Cefixime*
  71. Biotin needed in which inborn error of metabolic disorder?Holocarboxylasesynthetasedeficiency*, glutaric aciduria
  72. ECG Changes in GSD Type 2 – short PR Interval*
  73. Fabry’s disease enzyme deficiency? Alpha-Galactosidase*, Glucosidase, Aryl Sulfatase
  74. Qn on spinal injury and SCIWORA
  75. Which is mitochondrial disease? Rye Syndrome*
  76. PSVT drug treatment? Adenosine*
  77. How many steps in BFHI? 10*
  78. Polio how many ml of drops? 0.1 ml*
  79. Complain of arthritis for how many weeks for diagnosis of JIA? 6 months*
  80. CSF in Rickettsial Diseases normally shows?Pleocytosis with mild proteins elevation and normal glucose*
  81. Digeorge Syndrome is mal development from which pharyngeal tissue? – 3rd and 4th Pharyngeal pouch*, arches, clefts
  82. Sup Mesenteric Artery gets compressed with part of duodenum? 1st, 2nd, 3rd* or 4th
  83. Clinical Qn–HR 220 – altered sensorium –checked A/B/C… what next? Check BP
  84. Drug induced Lupus – 2 Qn
  85. Edward Syndrome
  86. Most Common Cause of Congenital Cataract – Congenital Rubella*
  87. Cogan’s Syndrome – Triad of Interstitial Keratitis, hearing loss, vestibular symptoms *
  88. Diagnosis when SPO2 high, pO2 normal or low? – Methemoglobinemia*
  89. H2 breath test used for?– Carbohydrate malabsorption*
  90. Coarse facies – MPS*
  91. Pneumatosis Intestinalis at which Stage of NEC? Stage II *
  92. Hypospadia/epispadias in a healthy child – t/t at what age?
  93. Morgagnian Hernia – Retrosternal*, paraesophageal
  94. Qn on canavan’s disease
  95. Hyper acusis in TaySach’s disease
  96. Question on refsum’s disease
  97. Weaver syndrome
  98. Gene responsible for cancer life prolongation – Telomerase*
  99. NBSU
Written by
Dr Ankur Sharma , He is persuing DNB Pediatrics from Nazareth Hospital, Shillong

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MCQ DNB PEDIATRICS THEORY JUNE 2017 MCQ DNB PEDIATRICS THEORY JUNE 2017 Reviewed by Author on 28 September Rating: 5

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